Really interesting discussion you are having here guys! Just be careful not to tie yourselves in knots!
First, let's clear up some definitions:
WaltGrace1983 Wrote:Ya know, I was also thinking a bit about whether "qualification" is sufficient or necessary, and I think that is what you are referring to here. (I think) what you are saying is that if "qualification" is a necessary condition, then simply being qualified isn't enough. Therefore, you could still be qualified, not chosen, and there could be nothing wrong with that. However, I think "qualification" may go along the lines of more of "eligibility" rather than a "requirement," thus a sufficient condition. I think that the first sentence has little to do with the rest of the core (maybe a geek could chime in if I am wrong).
If "qualification" is a sufficient condition - which it appears to be - then the correct answer would be still be necessary and make perfect sense.
If I understand this debate correctly, you're trying to determine whether it's:
if high skill --> qualified
OR
if qualified --> high skill
Is that correct?
Dudes, I think we can safely just equate "qualified" and "high skill" here. You are thinking
way, way, way too hard about tiny distinctions that
do not matter at all on this question.
Now,
goh2, I do commend you for turning up your radar on language shifts and catching that there appeared to be a term shift between "women" and "qualified women". That kind of sensitivity is a great thing to be cultivating.
However, you've also got to pair it with an assessment of whether the apparent term shift
actually makes a difference. Because language actually isn't quite math, the LSAT is full of implied words and synonym shifts that mean essentially the same thing, etc. In this situation, this seeming term shift is actually a distinction without a difference.
Why? Because I'm working on the idea that any applicants actually admitted to the club
were qualified for admission. If they are letting in people who don't actually meet the requirements, i.e., breaking their own rules, we have a whole different can of worms to deal with. So, if the women who were admitted must have been qualified
in order for them to have been admitted, then that premise must actually be saying that half the applicants admitted were QUALIFIED women.
It's strongly implied by the nature of the situation, and unless they give me a red flag that the club might be breaking their own rules on qualification, I'm not going to waste time worrying about that.
So, where does that leave us? Well, it *seemed* like there was a term shift between "women" and "qualified women", but it didn't seem to pan out.
The moral of this story though is far more important. We could probably talk about these nuances and hairsplitting issues you two are delving into
for days and days. I could remind you that it's just not that relevant to the question at hand (this IS a question #4...), but it's actually far more dangerous than that.
This is a spin out. And what it does is BLIND YOU to the real issue at play here, which is that the percent of women admitted doesn't mean *anything* if we don't know the percent of women who applied (and had a chance at getting in).
Don't make problems harder than they actually are by overfocusing on the potentially infinite complexities of tiny nuances of language. It's dangerous and counterproductive.
All that being said, I'm thrilled that both of you are engaging so deeply with the material. Just be sure to keep yourselves focused on
simplifying logical structures and
stripping away unnecessary nuance and complexity, instead of magnifying sideline details over and over like fractals.