I have a bit of a problem with this question. Answers C D and E can be eliminated right away but the fact that A is true despite it not being a reason why is unlikely that rhinoviruses are especially virulent.
I came to an agreement with myself that the question was wrong because even if the patient is incapacitated for long enough to reproduce extensively to pass directly to another host, even if a few of the pathogens (please forgive my ignorance but I assume there is more than one tiny virus hanging around) is able to survive long enough for a person to transmited even after getting better. For example by direct contact with an object that someone else uses later then the pathogen can go an invade another host.
Does anyone have a better explanation.
thank you in advance!