Alright, this problem is really tough. Many of the explanation seem really complicated too(the subject matter/jargon is really throwing me off) and I still don't feel entirely clear so I'll attempt to write out my thought process.
So "Rate of Inflation" - "Rate of Return" for the most profitable investment available = the minimum loss.
Any investment that has a greater minimum loss won't be the most profitable investment available because we have established a guideline for what defines the most profitable investment available--its minimum loss. So if the min. loss is 12%, any investment that has a greater min. loss i.e., 15%, will not be the most profitable investment available.
Note: the min. loss would be greater for the non-most profitable investment available because it would have certain characteristics that would cause this such as a lower rate of return. If inflation stayed the same and the rate of return decreased, the minimum loss amount would go up because of the equation in the last paragraph. A similar effect would occur with inflation went up and the rate of return stayed the same or if the rate of return went down while inflation rose. In all these cases the
difference (the result from our subtraction) would increase.
So the stimulus tells us that a particular investment(notice how it gives no indication whether we are talking about the most profitable investment available or not) has a minimum loss greater than the guideline we established. So we already know it can't be the most profitable investment available because it has a greater minimum loss than is required for the most profitable investment available!
Answer Choices-
(A)- We don't know. It could have risen, but if also could have declined and just the rate of return went down--this would explain how it declined. ELIMINATE
(B)- Eliminating this one has been tough for me. But we can eliminate it because we do not know that this investment is becoming less profitable( although it seems to that it is a likely possibility), we only know the minimum loss is greater and that this particular investment can't be the MPIA.
(D)- Two reasons why this is wrong: 1) We already know we aren't talking about the most profitable investment available, rather another investment due to this particular investment's minimum loss being greater than the baseline we established as defining the most profitable investment available; and 2) Like (A), we don't know it was the rate of return that caused the minimum loss to rise, it could have been that inflation rose; we don't know for sure one way or another( note that the greater the minimum loss, the greater the value as declined because you are losing more money! Something is more valuable if it gets you more money, if it gets you less, it is less valuable!). ELIMINATE
(E)- Similar to (D), we know we are not talking about the most profitable investment available, so we cannot conclude the MPIA (i should have used this acronym a LONG time ago :p) has changed! We are given no information about the MPIA just about a particular investment that is not the MPIA.
ELIMNATE
(C)- Correct answer. Going back to our original inference; we know this investment can't be the MPIA as it does not adhere to our min.loss stipulation/guideline. So, if it not our MOST PROFITABLE available investment, it HAS to be a less profitable investment! Bingo.
Hope this helps some! Sorry my explanation for (B) was a little weak; it's hard for me to understand right now.