katherine.morales15 Wrote:I was between answer choices C and E for this question. I understood that a link between better developed connections and a greater influence needed to be made.
Answer choice C mentions both of these ideas. Is answer choice C wrong because it states that the cortex is the one that has the most highly developed neural connections when the argument only states that the connections between C and A are less developed than A and C?
Also, can you explain why answer choice E is correct?
So, we are looking for an answer that allows a causal connection to be drawn. ohthatpatrick did a fantastic job above explaining why (E) is correct here. The conclusion involves The New Guy, "greater influence" and that needs to be connected with development of neural connections.
The causality is really just a secondary issue in this problem; we're concerned about connecting the terms and filling the gap here. However, it is somewhat important for eliminating (C), which I'll get to.
So, (E) really does that perfectly. The only thing we know about the amygdala and the cortex are their neural connections relative to each other, and that the former has a greater development than the latter. From this, a conclusion is drawn about the amygdala having a greater influence. Well why? We need to connect the variables that we have, and greater development--->greater influence works perfectly-- which is what (E) says.
But why not (C)? It deals with the same variables, and isn't a mistaken reversal. You were on the right track- it is because "most" is present. But, that's not really the only reason it's wrong. In a Sufficient Assumption Question, we can actually have stronger-worded correct answer choices since we are looking for something that 100% guarantees the conclusion. But, "most," in answer choices still should be looked upon with a careful eye.
(C) is incorrect because it is out of scope for what we need. Put it into a conditional and it states, "If it has the most highly developed neural connections to the cortex, it has the most influence on the cortex."
There are a few problems with this.
First, (pardon the redundancy) what is it telling us? It's saying that if the part of the brain has the greatest neural connection to the cortex, then it is the most influential. That's all we get. Does it say that as neural connections increase that influence increases? No. We don't know if there's causality here, because we're dealing with a "most" statement. There's nowhere left to go, and we don't know if it has the greatest influence
because of these connections.
Second, it actually could be because of something else entirely, and this part of the brain just happens to have the most highly developed neural connections. In other words, there could be no causal connection between the two, and it could even be a third factor that causes the influence, or the relationship could be reversed.
Finally, (E) works on the other hand because we actually have proportionality. The more you have of this thing, the more this second thing happens. Ahhh, causality. This involves degree, which the stimulus also deals with (it's not dealing with absolutes) and (E) is perfect.