This is a crazy question because the assumption
seems so inherently stated as you are ready until you get to the answer choices and then you think, but didn't they already state (C)?!
Nope.
Question though, wouldn't this also work as a flaw question that states something like the following, "the argument treats the failure of a phenomenon to establish addiction as the phenomenon invalidating the notion that addiction can exist in its perceived form." I know that is an incredibly weird statement but I swear this would work better as a flaw question.
Simply denying one of two necessaries only denies that the sufficient has been satisfied, not that the sufficient condition is somehow "invalid." Do you see what I mean? I hope I am clear. If I say...
(addiction) → ((dependence) & (abuse))
then I say...
~((dependence) & (abuse))
that means...
I get this via a simple
contrapositive. However, just because ~(addiction) does NOT mean that the notion of (addiction) is inherently flawed.