jpchris3 Wrote:I understand why D is correct, but what is wrong with C? I interpreted C as meaning that the works of the three authors are incorrectly viewed as emblematic of the type of works written in that period.
If I said that a certain book is "an automonous and coherent whole", would you say that that means that it is "emblematic of the type of the works written in that period"?
I definitely think those two phrases are very different in meaning.
Or were you saying, since we know English scholars treated the texts they studied (such as the emblematic examples of Shakespeare, Marlowe, Sidney) as an autonomous and coherent whole, we can infer that Shakespeare's, Marlowe's, and Sidney's works were autonomous and coherent wholes?
This would be a Whole to Part fallacy. Just because the English scholars considered the English-language texts they studied to be an autonomous/coherent whole doesn't mean we can infer that the texts themselves were autonomous/coherent wholes.
I was tempted by (C) as well, because we remember that this phrase, "autonomous and coherent whole", was applied to the English-studying scholars that the author is griping about.
But, upon seeing this question stem, we should find the context in which Shakespeare, Marlowe, and Sidney were mentioned. It is in the context of the author discussing Binns's work in the 1st sentence, which tries to clarify the misconception that S,M,&S alone represent the high culture of the Renaissance.
The line reference relating to (C) comes down in the 2nd paragraph, lines 33-37.
The phrase "autonomous and coherent whole" is used to describe the entire collection of English-language writings of Renaissance England, not to describe each individual writing of an English-language writer in Renaissance England.
Hope this helps.