Hello, Atlas:
I have a question about the first paragraph of this passage (PT 42, Sec. 3, Passage 1) . The first paragraph puzzled me.
I did not see the connection between the first and second sentences of the passage. Let me explain. In the 1st sentence, the author defines pop-art as being the movement that "incorporated commonplace objects and commercial-art techniques into paintings." But, then, in the very next line he writes that Lichtenstein's "merger of [/i] a popular art genre [/i]with the form and intentions of fine art . . . . . " made his work have a complex result.
Huh?
The author’s definition of pop-art _ as occurs in the first sentence _ nowhere says that pop-part was blending of a "a popular art genre" with "fine art." To begin with, the first sentence only talks about commercial-art, and it’s not obvious at all that commercial-art is "fine art." There’s a leap of reasoning here. Second, the first sentence doesn’t tell us that any "popular genre" undergoes a merger of sorts. The first sentence only says that pop-art "incorporated" common-place objects in its works. Such an "incorporation" _ by itself _ hardly seems to constitutes a "popular genre." Again, there appears to be a leap of reasoning.
I ask this b/c (a) these type of things have repeatedly thrown me off and (b) I am left wondering if I’ve failed to grasp some deep connection that the author tries to make between two things. My questions, now: What can I do to not get thrown off, and *how*/ *when* can I tell if the author is trying to make some deep connection in situations described above?
[btw: I think my concern about missing deep connections/inferences is what also motivated me to ask a question on your RC PT 53 (Sec IV) form.]
Things like this have been an endless source of frustration ! I would be very grateful for your insights.