as usual,
in problems that give a numerical value for standard deviation, you don't actually have to know what standard deviation is. in this problem, you can just treat
d as a totally arbitrary variable, and solve the problem as is.
this is a VERY consistent pattern in past gmat problems, so, unless the people who write the test do a complete about-face, it's unlikely to change anytime soon.
see here:
post17297.html#p17297and
post31646.html#p31646--
imagine that you have the dsitribution on a number line:
------REGION 1-----
(m - d)-------REGION 2-------
(m)-------REGION 3------
(m + d)-------REGION 4-------
we want region 4.
since the distribution is SYMMETRIC,
you must have the same percentage in region 1 as in region 4, and the same percentage in region 2 as in region 3.
statement 1:
regions 2 and 3 total 68%. therefore, they are 34% apiece.
two ways to go from here, both of which prove "sufficient":
(a) each HALF of the distribution is 50%, so region 4 = 50% - 34%, or 16%.
(b) regions 1 and 4 together are 100% - 68% = 32%, so each of regions 1 and 4 is half of that (= 16%).
sufficient.
statement 2:
region 1 is 16%.
since regions 1 and 4 are the same, because of symmetry, it follows that region 4 is also 16%.
sufficient.
ans = D
note that, as promised above, this problem requires zero actual knowledge about how standard deviations work.