Hi Experts -
I was curious if my understanding of sequencing of tenses is accurate
Source : made up
i) I drank the coffee that had been cold
ii) I drank the coffee that was cold
iii) I drank the coffee that is cold
i) The past perfect tense is never correct if used in a sentence without either (a) a past time marker or (b) some later past action in the regular past tense. Technically, you have (b) in this example, implying that the coffee had been cold before you drank it (both actions in the past, but being cold came first). I think my main objection to this one is that the meaning is unclear: what happened to change the temperature of the coffee? Or did I drink it while it was still cold? If so, why not say "I drank the cold coffee"? If it was only cold for a while, why not explain that?JbhB682 Wrote:I was curious if my understanding of sequencing of tenses is accurate
Source : made up
i) I drank the coffee that had been cold
ii) I drank the coffee that was cold
iii) I drank the coffee that is cold
JbhB682 Wrote:iii) Is this saying --
I drank coffee in the past tense but the coffee in my stomach (after drinking the coffee) is still cold as of today in my belly. It is still true even after drinking the coffee.
Somehow if I could look into my belly and test if the coffee I drank is still cold in my belly -- that's what the present tense implies in this case ?