SC- The Quechuans believed

[RonPurewal]

The point is that due to is only ALLOWED to modify nouns. So, if you have "xxxxxxx mystical level due to yyyyyyy", then you're saying that the mystical level is due to yyyyyyy. That doesn't make sense here.

There's no sense in worrying about exactly what is meant to be modified here. It's not "mystical level", so it's wrong. (And it's especially pointless to toss around names like "verb phrase".)

[jyothi h]

The point is that due to is only ALLOWED to modify nouns. So, if you have "xxxxxxx mystical level due to yyyyyyy", then you're saying that the mystical level is due to yyyyyyy. That doesn't make sense here.

There's no sense in worrying about exactly what is meant to be modified here. It's not "mystical level", so it's wrong. (And it's especially pointless to toss around names like "verb phrase".)

Hi Ron,

Ok sure . Noted .

The reason I was trying to figure out what "due to" was modifying was to make sure I have understood the "due to" concepts right. I have trouble analyzing options with "due to" at times( as in this particular example) and I try to analyze it when I come across a question.
Sorry to dig up on this , but If you could help me on the below, I'd appreciate a great deal -

the traffic jam was due to an obstruction in the left lane
- Meaning - obstruction caused the Jam (noun) - hence correct.

In this particular problem
contact directly with the mystical level due to dream experience.
Meaning 1 - dream experience caused the mystical level (noun) - mystical level is a noun . So why isn't it correct here ? Is it because , syntactically this is ok , but meaning doesn't make sense ?
Or
Meaning 2 - Dream experience caused "the contact with mystical level" ( noun) ."the contact with mystical level" is a noun. Isn't "Meaning-2" right , meaning wise ? If so, why is due to incorrect ?
I am not sure if it is supposed to be read as meaning 1 or meaning 2 .

Thanks,
Jyothi

[RonPurewal]

the traffic jam was due to an obstruction in the left lane
- Meaning - obstruction caused the Jam (noun) - hence correct.

Yes.

In this particular problem
contact directly with the mystical level due to dream experience.
Meaning 1 - dream experience caused the mystical level (noun) - mystical level is a noun . So why isn't it correct here ? Is it because , syntactically this is ok , but meaning doesn't make sense ?
Or

I don't know what "syntactically" means, so I can't answer that part of your question.

This version doesn't make sense, because "the mystical level" itself is not due to dream experience. The contact with that level is due to dream experience.

Meaning 2 - Dream experience caused "the contact with mystical level" ( noun) ."the contact with mystical level" is a noun. Isn't "Meaning-2" right , meaning wise ? If so, why is due to incorrect ?

That's not just a noun; it's a noun with lots of stuff attached to it.

Thus far GMAC has not used "due to xxxxx" in any way other than attaching it directly to the noun that it describes. So, unless "due to" comes directly after "contact" -- with no other modifiers in the way -- I'd be suspicious of it.

I am not sure if it is supposed to be read as meaning 1 or meaning 2 .

Meaning 1 doesn't make sense. Meaning 2 does.
There's no rule for this. Just read the context of the sentence, and use your everyday intuition. (If this sentence were to appear in, say, National Geographic magazine, I doubt you would have any trouble discerning what it was supposed to mean.)

[RonPurewal]

Also, just a general tip -- Don't bother distinguishing between "meaning errors" and "grammar errors". First, an error is an error -- it's not helpful to think in these terms anyway. More importantly, it's often impossible to make that distinction in the first place.

For instance, consider the following sentence:
The fans threw glassware onto the field, and it led to a penalty for the home team.

OK, so there's a problem with "it" here.

* Person #1 says, "That's a grammar error, because "it" is intended to stand for "threw glassware", which isn't a noun."

* Person #2 says, "That's a meaning error, because "it" would have to stand for either "glassware" or "field", and neither of those two makes sense."

Who's right?
Well, both people are right. The problem isn't specifically grammar or meaning; the problem is that grammar and meaning don't agree.
If two things don't agree, then the error is that ... they don't agree. No sense in trying to pin it on one side or the other.

[jyothi h]

Also, just a general tip -- Don't bother distinguishing between "meaning errors" and "grammar errors". First, an error is an error -- it's not helpful to think in these terms anyway. More importantly, it's often impossible to make that distinction in the first place.

For instance, consider the following sentence:
The fans threw glassware onto the field, and it led to a penalty for the home team.

OK, so there's a problem with "it" here.

* Person #1 says, "That's a grammar error, because "it" is intended to stand for "threw glassware", which isn't a noun."

* Person #2 says, "That's a meaning error, because "it" would have to stand for either "glassware" or "field", and neither of those two makes sense."

Who's right?
Well, both people are right. The problem isn't specifically grammar or meaning; the problem is that grammar and meaning don't agree.
If two things don't agree, then the error is that ... they don't agree. No sense in trying to pin it on one side or the other.

I totally get what you saying . Thank you so much for the help !

[RonPurewal]

You're welcome.

[eggpain24]

Hi，Ron

In choice B

Is the use of “it” ambiguous（compared to “latter” in the correct choice）and should be eliminated？

“by the way of” seems weird to me（can you shed more light on this issue？）

Thank you！

[gbyhats]

Hi，Ron

In choice B

Is the use of “it” ambiguous（compared to “latter” in the correct choice）and should be eliminated？

“by the way of” seems weird to me (can you shed more light on this issue?)

Thank you！

Haha, I can help you solve these questions ;)

(1) About pronoun ambiguity

"Pronoun ambiguity" is NOT tested on the gmat.
If the intended noun is obvious, that's good enough (provided that the noun is actually there!).

Original post: http://tinyurl.com/mq9mw7x

Also, if you want to know more about "pronoun ambiguity", check this:
http://tinyurl.com/krgo52o

(2) About wired expression in SC correct answers

Since "by the way of" appeared in correct answer, it is correct. Everything in correct answer is correct.

do not question officially correct answers!
far too many students on this forum make the mistake of questioning the correct answers; to do so is to waste your time and effort.

"is this correct?" is never a productive question to ask about one of GMAC's correct answers -- the answer is always yes.
"is this wrong?" / "is this X type of error?" is never a productive question to ask about one of GMAC's correct answers -- the answer is always no.

instead, the questions you should be asking about correct official answers, if you don't understand them, are:
"why is this correct?"
"how does this work?"
"what understanding am i lacking that i need to understand this choice?"

Original post: http://tinyurl.com/l9kdl7r

[gbyhats]

Hi Dear Manhattan Instructors ;)

Can I ask for some example sentences that use "X is a means to Y" and "Y can be done by means of X", respectively?

the example given in the book is "X is a means to Y", which means that X is some action that can be used in an attempt to attain condition Y.
the example given here is "Y can be done by means of X", which means that X is a way of accomplishing whatever Y is.
these are unrelated.

I'm sorry that I can't tell their differences

[tim]

No. Here's the thing: If you've ever seen this tested on a GMAT question, then you already have the examples you need. If you haven't seen it tested, there's no point in studying it.

[gbyhats]

No. Here's the thing: If you've ever seen this tested on a GMAT question, then you already have the examples you need. If you haven't seen it tested, there's no point in studying it.

Haha, sure!

Thank you Tim

[tim]

Thanks for taking that advice to heart! A lot of people would just think that's a dismissive answer, but sometimes being dismissive of stuff that's not going to be tested is the best way to keep your focus on what's important for the GMAT.

[gmatkiller_24]

Sorry for bumping this old thread. Can someone tell me that whether the use of by way of in choice B is problematic?

Thank you!

[RonPurewal]

"by way of" is basically equivalent to "by means of", so, no, there's nothing wrong with that part.

[BryanY988]

this is incorrect because it's ambiguous.

possible interpretation #1:
contact with the latter directly through...
i.e., the contact is what is direct; the dream experience is just a conduit. in this interpretation, "through" is not used with directly; therefore, it's possible, in this interpretation, that the dream experience is only one of a number of consecutive channels through which contact is achieved.

possible interpretation #2:
contact with the latter directly through...
i.e., we are not sure whether the actual contact is direct, but the dream experience is the only channel of transmission.

if you're still having trouble seeing the ambiguity here, consider the following:
Use this door only after 5pm.

interpretation #1:
Use this door only after 5pm (i.e., don't use any other doors after 5pm)

interpretation #2:
Use this door only after 5pm (i.e., don't use this door until 5pm)

Hi Ron

In your example, use this door only after 5 pm, you show 2 potential interpretations.

But in OG13 #6, the correct answer is, A...., surpassed only B and C...

So, analogy...

A..., surpassed only B and C

A..., surpassed only B and C

The intended meaning is the latter. But, I'm confused with "only", could you please help?

Thanks.
Bryan