ok. the bottom line:
that "because of" should modify a verb and be followed by a noun/noun phrase.
purduesr Wrote:"because of" can't follow a form of "to be". it has to follow a normal verb.
What if 'because of' follows relative pronouns such as that, which, etc..?
i.e. which because of, that because of
tankobe Wrote:purduesr Wrote:"because of" can't follow a form of "to be". it has to follow a normal verb.
What if 'because of' follows relative pronouns such as that, which, etc..?
the same question, i am not sure which one can be right?
1# it is because of ...
2# it is because of ...that....
3# it is because ....
4# it is because ....that....
5# it is why.....
6# that is why....
RonPurewal Wrote:tankobe Wrote:"because of" can't follow a form of "to be". it has to follow a normal verb.
#2 and #4 would make sense.
#1 and #3 don't make sense. in these cases, "it" would have to be a normal pronoun - i.e., it would have to stand for a noun - and "NOUN is because..." is impossible.
i don't think #5 would ever be acceptable. in fact, i don't think "NOUN is why..." could ever work.
#6 can't work, because you're not allowed to use "that" as a standalone noun.
(you can use "that" as a pronoun ONLY if it is part of a parallel structure, i.e., the legacy of Beethoven vs. that of Bach.)
akhp77 Wrote:Hi Ron
Thanks for explanation
I understood that E is better.
E: are caused by the interaction of two stars orbiting each other at close range
I believe that "orbiting each other at close range" is a noun modifier.
Otherwise it would be a problematic because it violates OF + NOUN + ING
So "orbiting" is participial not gerund. Is my understanding right?
llzzyy234 Wrote:For option B, I already know "may be" is redundant.
I just want to ask if "interaction between two stars that each orbit the other" here "orbit" should be "orbits"?
llzzyy234 Wrote:thx for the explanation
Doe007 Wrote:I am reopening the thread as I have a question, though my question is related to the part that is not underlined. This particular GMATPrep question is starting with "It seems likely" -- isn't seems likely redundant? I am wondering if this redundancy can appear in correct answer for any GMAT question.
Requesting MGMAT tutors to provide some feedback on this. Thanks in advance.
RonPurewal Wrote:
not redundant. if something seems likely, that doesn't necessarily mean that it is so -- it only seems that way.
e.g.
although rain may seem likely today, it's not going to happen -- so you can leave your umbrella at home.
this sentence makes sense. if you try to replace "may seem likely" with "may be likely", the resulting sentence will be nonsense.
Doe007 Wrote:Hi Ron, I appreciate your continuous helps in various forums including this one.
After your explanation, now I feel "seem" indicates perception and "likely" indicates probability. Am I correct here?