by tim Thu Apr 18, 2013 5:41 pm
I guess what I was trying to say was THAT'S the trick: 1.01^5 is about 1.05. Sounds like you're asking for a derivation though, which I'm happy to provide because it's fun. :) A warning though: the HOW of this is pretty complicated, and you do NOT have to know this to apply the trick. As such, please do not expect me or any other instructor to explain the derivation any further, as it is for informational purposes only and as far as the GMAT is concerned you will only need to know WHAT the trick is, not HOW it works.
WHAT the trick is (you need to know this):
If x is tiny, (1+x)^y is approximately 1+xy
HOW it works (not for the faint of heart):
By the Binomial Theorem, (1+x)^y = yC0*1 + yC1*x + yC2*x^2 + yC3*x^3 + ... + yCy*x^y. The first two terms are 1+xy. Now for sufficiently small x, all remaining terms are negligible. As an example, if x = .01 and y = 5 as in the original problem, the first two terms give you the 1.05 approximation, and the third term only adds 10*1/10000, or .001.
Tim Sanders
Manhattan GMAT Instructor
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