pronoun doubt

[weihe0904]

hi weihe0904

In comparisons you can put the helping verb either before the subject or after it.

I run faster than Michel does
I run faster than does Michel

Both are fine. I think the second one is preferred in formal written English.

thank you very much!

[mikrodj]

you're welcome.
I found a post that you might find helpful

although-they-are-less-obvious-termites-does-significantly-t1036.html

[RonPurewal]

you're welcome.
I found a post that you might find helpful

although-they-are-less-obvious-termites-does-significantly-t1036.html

thanks, good find.

[sandeep.19+man]

hey mangipudi.

sorry to take so long to get to this question -- we've been swamped with questions lately.

I have a couple of questions on the same topic and so will take the liberty to post them in this thread.

OG questions rephrased below -

1. The physical structure of the new hard disk enables it to store data up to 1TB; mega-data, however, cannot be stored because its size is too big to be stored in the new hard disk.[i]

In this example, how does
a. 'its' clearly refer to 'mega-data'
b. 'it' refer to 'new hard disk'
c. the same pronoun 'it' has different antecedents, is this acceptable ?

2. X will sometimes fail to detect Y when it exists and will indicate that it exists when it does not.

a. In the sentence above does 'IT' unambiguously refer to Y or can 'IT' also also refer to X ?
b. If a sentence is like this : clause1 ,<conjunction> clause2. The subject pronoun in clause2 refers to the subject of clause1. Is this correct ?

don't post the OG question itself here, BUT -- could you tell me WHICH OG question you're trying to imitate here?
that way, i could take a look, tell whether there are any substantive differences, and then report back to you. but i like the fact that you wrote an imitation version, rather than copying the original question.

--

by the way:
the rules on ambiguous pronouns are NOT absolute.

there are only two ABSOLUTE RULES for pronouns:
(1) the pronoun must stand for a noun that is actually PRESENT in the sentence;
(2) the pronoun and the noun must MATCH IN TERMS OF SINGULAR/PLURAL.

the other "rules", such as those that govern ambiguity of pronouns, are more like "guidelines" or "suggestions".
therefore, you should leave those criteria for last - i.e., until [i]after you've narrowed down the choices based on all other criteria that you can find.

Finally!

I have a similar question in mind: OG Verbal Review 2nd edition, Q92

DELETED! LOOK AT RON'S NOTE ABOVE!

But anyone who has the QR can look it up, and your question is answered below.

Thanks a ton

[mschwrtz]

Not simply because they're far apart, but also because

1) The antecedent of the second pronoun appears after the first pronoun.

2) The second pronoun is possessive, and must have a possessive antecedent. Not many chances to use 'possessive poison' on real GMAT questions, but this is one.

[aliassad]

Ron said,

choice (e) features the following nonparallel comparison:

...and its decline was much more rapid ... than the economy of the United States.

you can't compare a decline to an economy. therefore, wrong.)


Is E also non parallel because of " Britain's economy grew more slowly" and "its decline was much more rapid"

assuming that antecedent its is correct, are the above two terms separated by and also non parallel?

Thanks in advance

[tim]

what makes you think they are not parallel? be sure NEVER to eliminate a SC answer choice unless you either (1) know for sure it is wrong or (2) are forced to guess..

[Everything OR Nothing]

Its is possessive pronoun right?
If yes ,then why its can not refer to Britain's,which is possessive too.????

Please clear my doubt.

[RonPurewal]

Its is possessive pronoun right?
If yes ,then why its can not refer to Britain's,which is possessive too.????

Please clear my doubt.

this is a non-issue, because the context dictates that "its" would have to stand for the British economy, not for Britain itself.