Hi,
I was going through a question in a source banned on this forum. Nonetheless, I have created a similar question and will ask my doubt later.( I hope I'm not breaking any rules here. Apologies if that's the case. Let me know and I'll delete this post.) Here goes:
Ray, a techie, hosts annual parties at his home, they had great food, nice entertainment and a lot of booze.
1. Same
2. Ray, a techie, hosts annual parties at his home; they have
3. Ray, a techie, hosts annual parties at his home; the parties have
4. Ray, a techie, hosts annual parties at his home, they have
5. Ray, a techie, hosts annual parties at his home, the parties have
Not sure if I did a good job there. Anyways, my questions are as follows.
1. Can "they" refer to parties since its the only logical antecedent for the pronoun?
2. Isn't the semicolon mandatory over here?
3. Does C become a better option only because it refers to "parties" specifically or does this reference make the statement redundant?
IMO ans should be B. (feel free to suggest a new better answer since I have created the QnA both) :)
Experts please help.