OG 10th edition Q no 41

[Rahul]

Hi,I have a doubt in the below question

Source:OG 10th 41 ques

41)
Under a provision of the Constitution that was never applied. Congress has been required to call a convention
for considering possible amendments to the document when formally asked to do it by the legislatures
of two-thirds of the states.
(A) was never applied, Congress has been required to call a convention for considering possible
amendments to the document when formally asked to do it
(B) was never applied, there has been a requirement that Congress call a convention for consideration of
possible amendments to the document when asked to do it formally
(C) was never applied, whereby Congress is required to call a convention for considering possible
amendments to the document when asked to do it formally
(D) has never been applied, whereby Congress is required to call a convention to consider possible
amendments to the document when formally asked to do so
(E) has never been applied. Congress is required to call a convention to consider possible amendments to
the document when formally asked to do so
Choices A, B, C, and D contain tense errors (the use of was never applied with has been required in A, for
example), unidiomatic expressions (call... for considering), and uses of a pronoun (it) with no noun referent.
By introducing the subordinating conjunction whereby, C and D produce sentence fragments. Only E, the best
choice, corrects all of these problems. The predicate has never been applied refers to a span of time, from the
writing of the Constitution to the present, rather than to a past event (as was does), and the phrase is required
indicates that the provision still applies. The phrase call... to consider is idiomatic, and to do so can substitute
grammatically for it.


As per the expalanation E is the best but "Under a provision of the Constitution that was never applied" is not
a complete sentence.So,there shouldnot be a full stop after this sentence.I feel D addresses this with a "," comma.

I am going wrong somewhere?

Please help..thanks

[RonPurewal]

For our Yankee readers, 'full stop' is the British commonwealth way of saying 'period' (= punctuation mark that denotes the end of a sentence; not the other meanings of 'period').

One thing that NEVER changes about Sentence Correction questions is that they are single sentences. You will NEVER see a SC question in which the problem - or ANY single one of the answer choices - contains a period ('full stop') anywhere except at the very end. They just don't do that.

I don't have the 10th edition OG in front of me, but I can guarantee you that, if you look closely enough, all the marks you're currently mistaking for 'full stops' are actually commas.