The following sentence is the the OG's right answer for the question 93 in sentence correction section.
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This sentence has a structure that seems contrary to the rules that OG or this forum mentions. Here is my reasons:
1- "enabling it to ...." is a participle phrase. Participle phrases usually modify the whole previous phrase or the subject of the previous phrase, otherwise there would be an ambiguity. Here is an ambiguity in what the participle "enabling" is modifying. It can both modify "powers" and "supreme court". In similar situations OG says such a usage leads to an ambiguous sentence and is incorrect. Why in this case such a usage is not incorrect? (If here, it is obvious that what the participle "enabling" is modifying, in many other cases, considered wrong by the OG, it is also obvious what the participles are referring to. so probably this is not the right justification).
2- The second issue is why there isn't a comma before the participle phrase "enabling it to ...". OG says that participle modifiers should be separated from the previous clause by a comma(for example in question 101). why this rule is not obeyed in this sentence. Is there a general rule on when to use or not to use a comma before a participle phrase?
3- The second issue is about the pronoun "it" that can both refer to "CIA" and "Supreme Court". I know that it can be justified that here is not an ambiguity. But in many other similar cases that is obvious what the pronouns are refering to, OG says there is an ambiguity and such pronoun usages are incorrect. Again why in this case such a pronoun usage is not incorrect?
Thanks in advance,