Hi this is a data sufficiency question that I came across. I believe it was an example question from Thursday with Ron. I have it in my notes and don't know exactly where it came from.
Is x^y>y^x?
1) x=y^2
2) y>2
My question is since we know that x=y^2 then the question becomes is (y^2)^y>(y)^(y^2). Then why can't we simplify the preceding expression to y^2y>y^2y. I think it is permissible to simplify (y^2)^y to y^(2y) correct? why can't we just simplify y^(y^2) to y^(2y)?
Thanks.