Is this sentence correct?

[Atul_manhattan]

Is the following sentence correct? The problem is that the the second clause of the sentence have 'are' and 'to do so' to stand for the 'have accepted'. The verb in infinitive does't have an appropriate reference in the form of bare form of verb.
They have accepted punishment and more are likely to do so.

[Sage Pearce-Higgins]

I would say that the sentence is fine. Remember that the word 'and' is not only used for parallel structures (e.g. [subject] [verb] and [verb]); it can be used to join two independent clauses together, e.g. John likes fishing and Bill likes golf. That's what seems to be happening in your example: the second clause is 'more are likely to do so'. This probably doesn't sound like a complete sentence, because some words have been left out. As you wrote, 'to do so' stands in for 'to accept punishment', and 'more' means 'more people'. I don't think it matters that one form of the verb is present perfect and the other infinitive: the meaning of the sentence is clear.

That said, I'd be interested to hear about the context of this sentence. You wouldn't find a sentence like this in and SC problem, as the pronoun 'they' doesn't have an antecedent within the sentence.

[Atul_manhattan]

Hi Sage,

Thanks for replying!

This sentence has been made to reflect the error I faced while solving some problem. I can't reference that here.

In Manhattan SC guide, it has been given that be, do, and have can replace whole verb phrase and represent the exact verb phrase of first clause. However, there are many attached conditions that this sentence doesn't follow. One such condition is that the tense in the second clause must be in sync with the first clause. If tense changes, the whole verb need to be reformed. In this sentence, the first clause has present perfect whereas the second clause has simple present tense with infinitive. So by that rule, the accepted version would be:
They have accepted punishment and more are likely to accept it.

Please help!

[Sage Pearce-Higgins]

I assume that you're referring to chapter 12 of the SC strategy guide (6th edition). On page 202, it says that the 'first instance of the verb should usually match the helping verb in tense'. Note, usually. I think that there's a slightly grey area here and I would suggest the following: if you're faced with this kind of issue in an SC problem, look for alternative splits and issues. If there is no other issue, then use your judgement on the question 'does this sentence clearly express what it's trying to?'. Often this kind of subtle issue hinges on context: some examples will be clear (and therefore okay), and others may be ambiguous (and not okay).

For a more detailed discussion of the rules involved (to a level which, in my opinion, far exceeds what you need to get a very high score on GMAT), check this out: https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... ml#p128743