In some African languages, verbs not only encode the timeframe of an event but also imply the origin of the speaker's knowledge, which may be direct observation, hearsay, or intuition, resulting in speakers of those languages who cannot state facts without an attribution to some source.
A) not only encode the timeframe of an event but also imply the origin of the speaker's knowledge, which may be direct observation, hearsay, or intuition, resulting in speakers of those languages who cannot state facts without an attribution to some source
B) not only encode the timeframe of an event but also the origin of the speaker's knowledge, direct observation, hearsay, or intuition; therefore, speakers of those languages cannot state a fact without some source of attribution
C) encode not only the timeframe of an event but also the origin of the speaker's knowledge, whether direct observation, hearsay, or intuition; as a result, speakers of those languages cannot state facts without attributing them to a source
D) do not encode the timeframe of an event; they also imply the origin of the speaker's knowledge -- whether direct observation, hearsay, or intuition -- resulting in the inability of those languages' speakers to state facts and not attributions to some source
E) not only encode the timeframe of an event but also imply the origin of the speaker's knowledge, direct observation, hearsay, or intuition; speakers of those languages, therefore, do not state facts without attributing them to sources.
The correct option is C.
But what I would like to clarify here is this :
The original question says this:
verbs not only encode the timeframe of an event but also imply the origin of the speaker's knowledge
i.e. Verbs do two things
1) encode time frame of an event
2) impy the origin of speakers knowledge.
But option C has removed that "imply" part , So is there not a meaning change.
Now it means that
verbs encode
1) timeframe of an event
2) origin of the speakers knowledge.
PLease explain.
thanks