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RonPurewal
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by RonPurewal Thu Apr 16, 2009 3:23 am

hmgmat Wrote:Thanks Ron.

If I understand your rule #1 and #3 *together*, it means that ", verb-ing..." as an adjective modifier can only exist in the middle of the sentence or at the beginning of a sentence but not the end. Correct?

Thanks in advance.


no. if there's no comma, then it can be at the end: i saw a polar bear chomping on a woman's leg.
here, chomping... modifies "polar bear".
http://www.cnn.com/2009/WORLD/europe/04 ... index.html
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by hmgmat Thu Apr 16, 2009 1:22 pm

How about with comma?

Is it true that ", verb-ing..., " as an adjective modifier can only exist in the middle of the sentence or at the beginning of a sentence but not the end?

Thanks in advance.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by RonPurewal Mon Apr 20, 2009 6:47 am

hmgmat Wrote:How about with comma?

Is it true that ", verb-ing..., " as an adjective modifier can only exist in the middle of the sentence or at the beginning of a sentence but not the end?

Thanks in advance.




this seems correct, yes.

if you see any conflicting examples, though, be sure to post here and tell us.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by hmgmat Mon Apr 20, 2009 4:45 pm

Hi Ron,

I can't recall if there is an counter example.

Umm, according to your post here: post1876.html, the present participle phrase in "[subject], [present participle phrase], [verb]..." modifies the verb (action) rather than the subject.

So can I conclude that if I see "[subject], [present participle phrase], [verb]...", the present participle phrase can function as either an adverbial modifier or an adjectival modifier?

Thanks in advance.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by RonPurewal Tue Apr 28, 2009 6:15 am

hmgmat Wrote:So can I conclude that if I see "[subject], [present participle phrase], [verb]...", the present participle phrase can function as either an adverbial modifier or an adjectival modifier?

Thanks in advance.


you'll be safe if you consider "adverbial modifier" to be the default mode here.

the distinction isn't as wide as you may think, anyway.
remember that adverbial modifiers, even though they directly modify some action, do imply that the subject of said action is also their subject.
i.e., if you have "X did Y, doing Z", then X must be the one who's doing Z.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by hmgmat Wed Apr 29, 2009 2:15 am

Thanks for your explanation and patient ;-)
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by hmgmat Fri May 01, 2009 5:56 pm

--deleted--
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by JonathanSchneider Fri May 08, 2009 1:09 am

Not exactly. Ron didn't mean the placement in general in the sentence, but rather the placement given the context/other words in the sentence. If such an -ing form were to be an adjective modifier, it would be next to the noun it describes.
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Re: few more clarifications

by tankobe Tue Nov 24, 2009 2:26 pm

RonPurewal Wrote:
rschunti Wrote:Why other choices are wrong? Also in the OA what "it" is referring to "making it....". If it is referring to interest rates, then is interest rates not a plural and it a singular?


the 'it' is an idiomatic construction. it's the same 'it' that you'll see in the following:
it is impossible for adult learners to speak most languages without an accent.
i'm not sure of the grammatical term for this construction, if there is any, but you should know that such constructions exist.


dear Ron! i may disagree with you over the issue of it.

1# I Know a idiom about it, which can refer to a that sub-clause or a infinitive.
In your example--it is impossible for adult learners to speak most languages without an accent, it refer to to speak languages; in other words, i change the sentence into another one of the same mining--to speak most languages without an accent is impossible for adult learners.
which is impossible? to speak most languages without XX .

2# in this GMATprep question--making it more expensive for businesses and consumers to borrow., the usage of it dose not belong to the idiom.
which is expensive? to borrow is expensive---dose not make sense!!!
it must be that certain NOUN is expensive, so it must refer to certain NOUN.
something (NOUN) is expensive to borrow---make sense!!

3# we can not borrow interest rates, so it can't refer to interest rates. what the hell dose it refer????????????

stephen
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Re: few more clarifications

by lokeshvgopal Tue Nov 24, 2009 11:19 pm

the point here is 'it' need not always have an antecedent; 'it' many times is used as a 'place holder' to make the sentence meaningful and sound correct - as is the case here.
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Re: few more clarifications

by RonPurewal Thu Dec 31, 2009 12:50 am

tankobe Wrote:2# in this GMATprep question--making it more expensive for businesses and consumers to borrow., the usage of it dose not belong to the idiom.
which is expensive? to borrow is expensive---dose not make sense!!!


but this does make sense; it's the intended meaning of the sentence.

...made it more expensive for X to borrow...
has the same structure as
it was more expensive for X to borrow...

--

also, it's easier just to memorize this as a standalone idiom than to worry about what "it" stands for in this instance. since "it" doesn't stand for a noun (in stark contrast to every other rule concerning pronouns), it's better just to memorize this as the one instance in which "it" doesn't have to stand for a pronoun.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by tankobe Sat Jan 09, 2010 4:13 pm

RonPurewal Wrote:
hmgmat Wrote:It seems to me that OG is trying to say that the participle phrase is an adjectival phrase modifying a noun (phrase), which is "shields" or "items". Or actually, there exists a kind of adverbial phrase modifying a noun (phrase)? Or do I completely misinterpret the explanations?


you misinterpreted the explanations.

first, let me assure you again: if you see an -ing modifier after a full clause and a comma, it WILL be an adverbial modifier.
always.
end of story.
i promise you.
--

Ron, i really agree with you, but when -ing modifier follow the subject, it may be not wise to differentiate it between ADJ modifier and ADV modifier. here is a example:

The Chicago and Calumet Rivers originally flowed into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan, but having been redirected by constructing canals so that the water now empties into the Mississippi by way of the Illinois River.

(A) Rivers originally flowed into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan, but having been redirected by constructing
(B) Rivers had originally flowed into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan, but they have been redirected by constructing
(C) Rivers, which originally flowed into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan but have been redirected by the construction of
(D) Rivers, originally flowing into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan, but having been redirected by the construction of
(E) Rivers, originally flowing into the St. Lawrence by way of Lake Michigan, have been redirected through the construction of
* source:GMATPrep

the key is E. I think it is better to take originally flowing into the St. Lawrence as adj modifier rather than adv modifier.
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Re: few more clarifications

by eggpain24 Fri Aug 15, 2014 12:17 am

RonPurewal Wrote:
rschunti Wrote:Why other choices are wrong? Also in the OA what "it" is referring to "making it....". If it is referring to interest rates, then is interest rates not a plural and it a singular?


the 'it' is an idiomatic construction. it's the same 'it' that you'll see in the following:
it is impossible for adult learners to speak most languages without an accent.
i'm not sure of the grammatical term for this construction, if there is any, but you should know that such constructions exist.

choice a:
- needless use of passive voice
- modifier indicates that interest rates were hoping to restrain economic growth
- 'borrow for businesses and consumers' = some unmentioned agent is borrowing for the benefit of businesses and consumers (not what is meant)

choice b:
- needless use of passive voice
- ambiguous 'their'

choice c:
- two 'ing's in a row = undesirable
- improper mix of future and past tenses
- needless use of past perfect
- wording that is just awful (not sure whether you have a sense of this - depends on your degree of exposure to well-written english)

choice d:
- present participle ('restraining') improperly signals ongoing CURRENT action (whereas the actual meaning is a hoped-for future result)
- 'making more expensive borrowing' = awkward construction (the natural english wording would be 'making borrowing more expensive', but even that is bad because it has two 'ing's in a row)


HI,ron
I spot an additional error in choice C,please clarify

opening modifier “in making” and main clause“ British policymakers had raised interest rates.” (logical relationship doesn't make sense in this context)

this is not what the author want to convey.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by neetub951 Wed Aug 05, 2015 6:57 am

Hoping to restrain economic growth, British policymakers raised interest rates, making it more expensive for businesses and consumers to borrow.

@ron : Hi, as I recall from studyhall, you explicitly said that "it" should refer to a noun not to a phrase. here it is referring to "to borrow". (I eliminated the choice basis that logic). This sentence can work without it. --> Hoping to restrain economic growth, British policymakers raised interest rates, making more expensive for businesses and consumers to borrow. right?

p.s. -- not challenging gmat ques, just curious to know.
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Re: In hoping to restrain economic growth, interest rates were r

by RonPurewal Wed Aug 05, 2015 8:08 am