by jlucero Fri Feb 14, 2014 3:58 pm
I think Stacey explained the math perfectly in the initial post, so let me answer your question by using shorthand. Of the four expressions (abc&d), we want to select two. This would be 4!/2!2! = 6 combinations. Out of those six combinations, only one combination will yield the proper form. Therefore, the answer is 1/6. Notice that this method requires us to count the ONE combination that works out of the SIX combinations of expressions. We've done the reducing in each step, so we don't need to do anything afterwards (like multiply by 2).
combinations that yield the proper form: ab
total combinations: ab, ac, ad, bc, bd, cd
answer: 1/6
If you want to do the reducing afterwards, you could say that there are 4*3 = 12 combinations of expressions you could select, and 2 of those combinations work. But this is simply double counting each of the combinations, by flipping the values around.
combinations that yield the proper form: ab, ba
total combinations: ab, ac, ad, ba, bc, bd, ca, cb, cd, da, db, dc
answer: 2/12 = 1/6
Just because there is more than one way to do something, doesn't double the probability IF YOU CAN ALSO DOUBLE THE PROBABILITIES OF EVERY OTHER COMBINATION. If you have to choose one number b/w 0-9 and one letter b/w a-z, there are 10*26= 260 ways to choose a pair. Even if you choose the letter first and the number afterwards, you aren't changing the pairings, just the order of the pairings.
Joe Lucero
Manhattan GMAT Instructor