help! q51 v32 most are 700, why mine is 690?

[gez778]

happy new year everyone:)

I just took my first gmat exam, q51 v32 690,
but I checked on the internet, almost everyone with v32 q51 has totally 700,
does anyone know why there is 10 less? and how did the scoring rule work?
I just want to know the reason, so I can try to avoid such problem next time.

thank you in advance:)

[StaceyKoprince]

Any combination of two subscores (the 2-digit scores) can map to up to 3 different Total scores (the 3-digit scores).

The short explanation for that is that you did actually perform slightly lower than the others who scored 700. The underlying raw scores in each section are used to calculate your 2-digit and 3-digit scores. There are more available scores on the 3-digit scale—so while a certain range of raw scores will all map to the same 2-digit score, they will be more "spread out" on the 3-digit scale and map to multiple scores.

If you'd like to read more about this, look here (or you can just say "Okay, it's enough for me to know that this is legitimate—I don't care why it happens!"):
https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/blog ... 700-score/