I could not find this question while searching hence the post.
Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear
A. Same as above.
B.An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action,especially one that worked in the past,makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.
C.An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked in the past.
D.Executives' being heavily committed to a course of action,especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
This is a GMAT PREP 1 question. OA : E
I could narrow down to C and E. However,I chose (C) because Being {in option (E)} is always almost redundant.
I thought, 'it' {in option (C)} is not ambiguous because OBJECT OF PREPOSITION normally does not act as an antecedent. Looks like this is where I made a mistake.
I have already gone through Ron's post about pronouns:
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/post40400.html#p40400
I am pretty much convinced with option E as ambiguous 'it' is intelligently removed here.
Q. Is there any other reason besides pronoun reference to eliminate C?
Please validate my reasoning too.
Thanks as always :)