GMAT Prep Test2 : A Study published in the British Journal .

[RonPurewal]

Without "do", that sentence is still fine, if a bit harder to read.

(Illogical comparison, change of tense are 2 kinds that I know when we need to add the verb behind the sentence again)

I don't know what you mean by "illogical comparison". Perhaps you can clarify.

In addition, there are sentences that are ambiguous without the helping verb.
E.g.,
Tom has known Sarah longer than Carlos.
As written, this sentence has two possible interpretations:
1/ Tom and Carlos both know Sarah, but Tom met her first.
2/ Tom knows both Sarah, whom he met first, and Carlos, whom he met later.

If you add "has"...
Tom has known Sarah longer than Carlos has.
then the meaning is unambiguously #1.

[RonPurewal]

Also"”

I will be taking the test within a week!!!

If you are taking the test in 7 days, you should be finished with trying to learn new things (especially small details like this).

With your test so close, you should be thinking solely of the overall rhythm and timing of the exam"”which will not be stable if you are still trying to add to your skill set.

As an analogy, imagine that you have a dance competition in 7 days, and you're still trying to learn new dance steps. Clearly, that's not going to turn out so well.
At that point, you should be practicing a well-rehearsed routine"”even if the skills themselves are not "perfect". Same here.

[AbhilashM94]

Option B looks ok with the Tense part ..How do we eliminate B.

Cheers

please read the preceding posts.

as the original poster points out, you can kill the first three options because they pair "more" with "as". ("more" goes with "than", not with "as".)

Don't you mean less goes with than.

I think more..than has already been taken care of.

[RonPurewal]

Yes. Thanks.

[thanghnvn]

We need "were" to make the sentence clear. if there is no "were" the sentence is abiguous.

so, D is wrong not because E is more parelel

[jlucero]

We need "were" to make the sentence clear. if there is no "were" the sentence is abiguous.

so, D is wrong not because E is more parelel

Those things aren't exclusive. By including the word "were" we are making the sentence parallel and making the meaning clear.

[Gurprit SinghK572]

is answer choice E not in interrogative form.

[Sage Pearce-Higgins]

I'm not sure if I completely understand you here. It sounds like you're asking whether answer E is in the form of a question.

Perhaps you're referring to the order of the words, particularly the position of the word 'were' before 'those'. Yes, we do that with some questions, for example: He can ride a bicycle. (statement) Can he ride a bicycle? (question). Switching the order of the verb and subject so that the verb is before the subject can turn a statement into a question.

However, there are other situations in which we can switch the order of the subject and verb too, such as making a comparison. We'll often leave out some words from a comparison sentence; for example: 1. Nigel plays cricket more than Lee plays cricket. That sentence is fine in terms of grammar and meaning, but it sounds a bit cumbersome. We'd probably write 2. Nigel plays cricket more than Lee does. Here, we know that 'does' stands in for 'plays cricket'. However, some people think that it sounds awkward to end a sentence with a helper verb, so it's absolutely fine to move the verb before the subject; 3. Nigel plays cricket more than does Lee. That may sound odd (it sounds old-fashioned to me), but it's totally fine. In fact, 3 is just the kind of sentence that you should expect to read in the GMAT exam.

To conclude, answer E is not a question, but is just a slightly old-fashioned style that GMAT follows. To be clear, all the sentence 1,2, and 3 above are correct and GMAT will not expect you to choose between such forms.