Hi,
I do not know where this question was sourced. It was sent to me by someone. I searched the Web to determine its source but was unsuccessful. Anyways, here's the problem:
What is the greatest common divisor of positive integers a and b?
(1) a and b share exactly one common factor
(2) a and b are both prime numbers
According to the problem set that was sent to me, the answer is A. I do not understand how it can be A alone.
I agree that A allows us to conclude that 1 must the GCD if it is the only shared factor and hence we can answer the question.
What I do not understand is why we can't use 2 to also positively answer the question with the answer that 1 is the the GCD. If two numbers are primes, the only number that will evenly divide them both is 1. Hence, 1 must be their GCD.
Shouldn't the answer be D?
If this question is from a banned source, please delete it. Otherwise, any reponses are greatly appreciated.
Thanks very much.