vinay2
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Does not have versus does not has?

by vinay2 Fri Sep 24, 2010 12:09 am

Is it:

- It does not have a good taste? (seems correct)

or:

- It does not has a good taste? (seems awkward)

If it is the former, how come the singular "it" is used with plural "have" (they have, it has)?
kbhardwaj
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Re: Does not have versus does not has?

by kbhardwaj Thu Oct 07, 2010 2:44 am

When framing a negative sentence using the auxiliary verb "to do" (in Simple Present or Simple Past), we have to use the base form of the main verb.

do/does not + <base form> (Rule for Simple Present)

The verb we have is "to have" (base form: have)
Hence, the correct sentence: It does not have ...

You will notice this with other verbs as well.
Verb: to play
Affirmative: He plays
Negative: He does not play

Verb: to write
Affirmative: It writes
Negative: It does not write

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Kb