When news periodicals begin forecasting a recession, people tend to spend less money on nonessential purchases. Therefore, the perceived threat of a future recession decreases the willingness of people to purchase products that they regard as optional or luxury goods.
There is an "implied" assumption I did not understand
[It is implied that] The recession hasn't already started and that's why people are spending less money-maybe the periodicals are just slow in forecasting something that has already started
I understand it tries to establish a reverse causality bias but that's not the case in my mind
"When news periodicals begin forecasting a recession, people tend to spend less money on nonessential purchases"
This should be an undisputed fact, right? I have to take it for true, right?
I interpreted it like this: If, at t0, periodicals write "recession", at t1>t0 people will start to spend less money, with t1-t0 as little as possible (right after they start spending less money)
If the recession is already started, that undisputed fact is not true: people already spend less money, and they don't start right after to spend less money. So this is an assumption, but of the undisputed fact, not on the link "recession less money -> perceived threat, less luxury goods"
So where do I have to look for the gap? Between the two phrases connected by "therefore" (as I understood it), or also in undisputed facts?
Because otherwise it is also assuming that we are on Earth, that news periodicals exists, that people exists....
I don't know if I explained correctly my doubt