Antecedent rule.

[amandat821]

thank you. you are awesome.
i will remember this much simpler rule.

[RonPurewal]

you're welcome.

[AkashR945]

Hi Ron,

I have one questions.

If the original sentence would have been

In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines
have been priced to sell, and they do.
(A) have been priced to sell, and they do

Would it be correct? Is 'Have been' a correct usage here?

[RonPurewal]

remember—
DO NOT 'make your own versions' of GMAC's sentences.
really.
don't do it.

the GMAT only tests 1-2% of the things that can actually go wrong with english sentences (and even that may be an overestimate).
when random users try to 'edit' these sentences, the result is almost always inferior or incorrect—for reasons that the GMAT doesn't test.

making your own examples is good, but they should be...
...1/ your own examples,
...2/ SIMPLE examples, each illustrating only ONE concept (that is actually tested on this exam).

as far as the official problems are concerned, the given answer choices should be challenging enough already.
(:

__

in this case, that version doesn't make sense. the prices are the RESULT of the cuts, so, it doesn't make sense to have "have been..." and "have cut..." in the same tense.

...but, if verb tense is actually tested in a GMAT problem, the issue will be much bigger than that.

[Crisc419]

remember—
DO NOT 'make your own versions' of GMAC's sentences.
really.
don't do it.

the GMAT only tests 1-2% of the things that can actually go wrong with english sentences (and even that may be an overestimate).
when random users try to 'edit' these sentences, the result is almost always inferior or incorrect—for reasons that the GMAT doesn't test.

making your own examples is good, but they should be...
...1/ your own examples,
...2/ SIMPLE examples, each illustrating only ONE concept (that is actually tested on this exam).

as far as the official problems are concerned, the given answer choices should be challenging enough already.
(:

__

in this case, that version doesn't make sense. the prices are the RESULT of the cuts, so, it doesn't make sense to have "have been..." and "have cut..." in the same tense.

...but, if verb tense is actually tested in a GMAT problem, the issue will be much bigger than that.

Could you explain how this sentence works? I mean : in the preceding clause("their wines are priced to sell"), the verb is "are", why "do" can be used to stand for "are".

for example:

1/I swam this afternoon, so did my brother.
here "did" stands for "swam".
2/my brother is a big fan of BigBang , so are Jack and Tom.
here "are" stands for "is".

PS: Ron,Thank you so mcuh. I have made great progress in SC because of your posts. I love them.

I took the test at September 27th and got 710(Q50,V35), the percentile ranking is SC 79%, RC 73% and CR53%.

[RonPurewal]

it has come to my attention that the problem in this thread is from OG.

unless this problem is ALSO in the FREE GMATPrep software, we cannot continue to discuss it here. if this problem is indeed from the FREE GMATPrep software... please post a SCREEN SHOT of the problem FROM THE ORIGINAL SOFTWARE.

thank you.