Hi everybody,
when reading the GMAT-verbal I found a sentence：
Intar, the oldest Hispanic theather company in New York, has moved away from the Spanish classics and now it draws on the works both of contemporary Hispanic authors who live abroad and of those in the United States.
the right answer for the underlined part is: “now draws on the works of contemporary Hispanic authors, both those who live abroad and those who live”
the answer said that in the original sentence, the 'it' after 'and': 'creates an ungrammartical construction'.
but in another sentence:
Schistosomiasis, a disease caused by a parasitic worm, is prevalent in hot, humid climates, and it has become more widespread as irrigation projects have enlarged the habitat of the freshwater snails that are the parasite’s hosts for part of its life cycle.
'and it has become' is correct, why?? Does it contradict with the upper sentence?
When should we put the complete subject and verb after conjunction word, and when we should not? what's the rule?
thank you guys.
ps. Ron could you answer this question? Thanks a lot!
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