I am a bit confused about the explanation of Workout Set 1, Question Number 2 on Page 231 of the Advanced GMAT Quant, Strategy Supplement. The Question Reads:
A batch of widgets costs p+15 dollars for a company to produce and each batch sells for p(9-p) dollars. For which of the following values of p does the company make a profit?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7
After putting values in the formula for profits, we get and solve a quadratic equation with values of p=5 or p=3.
Now the interesting part in the explanation is "For p>5, both (p-5) and (p-3) are positive. In that case, the profits are negative, i.e. the company losses money. The profit is only positive if (p-5) and (p-3) have opposite signs, which occurs when 3<p<5". (from Page 270 of the strategy supplement.
My specific question is "Why is difference of sign of p a requirement for profitability. While simple multiplication tells us that profits will be positive when the signs of p are similar".
Regards